DSSSB Lab Technician Previous Question Paper 2015
Q1. Which is known as the power of the cell?
A. Ribosome
B. Cytoplasm
C. Lysosomes
D. Mitochondria
Answer: D. Mitochondria
Explanation: Mitochondria produce most of the cell's ATP through oxidative phosphorylation. That is why they are called the "powerhouse of the cell".
Q2. How many iron atoms are present in each molecule of Hb?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: D. 4
Explanation: Hemoglobin has four globin chains, and each carries one heme group. Each heme contains one ferrous (Fe²⁺) iron atom that binds one O₂ molecule.
Q3. Which coagulation factor is lacking in hemophilia?
A. Factor VIII
B. Factor IV
C. Factor II
D. Factor VII
Answer: A. Factor VIII
Explanation: Classic hemophilia (Hemophilia A) is an X-linked recessive disorder caused by deficiency of Factor VIII. Hemophilia B (Christmas disease) is due to Factor IX deficiency.
Q4. Volume changes in the heart are recorded by which instrument?
A. Thermometer
B. Cardiometer
C. Calorimeter
D. Oximeter
Answer: B. Cardiometer
Explanation: A cardiometer is used to record changes in the volume of the heart during the cardiac cycle. The others measure temperature, heat, and oxygen saturation respectively.
Q5. Temporary cessation of breathing is called:
A. Hypoxia
B. Anoxemia
C. Anoxia
D. Apnea
Answer: D. Apnea
Explanation: Apnea means a temporary stop in breathing. Hypoxia and anoxia refer to reduced or absent oxygen supply to tissues.
Q6. Normal tidal volume is about:
A. 0.5-1 litres
B. 1.5-2 litres
C. 2-2.5 litres
D. 2.5-3 litres
Answer: A. 0.5-1 litres
Explanation: Tidal volume is the air moved in or out during quiet breathing, about 500 ml in an adult. The option closest to this is 0.5-1 litre.
Q7. Which instrument is used for determination of BMR?
A. Manometer
B. Photometer
C. Spectrometer
D. Spirometer
Answer: D. Spirometer
Explanation: BMR is estimated by measuring oxygen consumption at rest with a spirometer (Benedict-Roth apparatus). Oxygen use is directly related to heat production.
Q8. What is the average daily requirement for insulin?
A. 30-50 units/day
B. 50-70 units/day
C. 70-90 units/day
D. 90-110 units/day
Answer: A. 30-50 units/day
Explanation: An average adult needs about 30-50 units of insulin per day. This is usually split into basal and meal-time doses.
Q9. What is the normal blood cholesterol level?
A. 150-250 mgm%
B. 250-350 mgm%
C. 350-450 mgm%
D. 450-500 mgm%
Answer: A. 150-250 mgm%
Explanation: Normal total serum cholesterol is about 150-250 mg/dl. Modern guidelines prefer a desirable level below 200 mg/dl.
Q10. What is the normal serum creatinine level?
A. 0.5-1.0 mgm%
B. 1.5-2.5 mgm%
C. 0.1-0.4 mgm%
D. 2.5-3.5 mgm%
Answer: A. 0.5-1.0 mgm%
Explanation: Serum creatinine is normally about 0.5-1.2 mg/dl. It rises when kidney function (GFR) falls.
Q11. Which disease occurs due to deficiency of Vitamin A?
A. Xerophthalmia
B. Rickets
C. Osteomalacia
D. Beri-beri
Answer: A. Xerophthalmia
Explanation: Vitamin A deficiency causes dryness and damage of the conjunctiva and cornea (xerophthalmia). Rickets is due to Vitamin D, and beri-beri to Vitamin B1.
Q12. What is the normal daily requirement of Vitamin D?
A. 500 IU
B. 1000 IU
C. 1500 IU
D. 2000 IU
Answer: B. 1000 IU (as per the key)
Explanation: The answer key marks 1000 IU. Standard recommendations are actually around 400-800 IU/day, so remember the key answer for this exam.
Q13. What is the normal Glomerular Filtration Rate?
A. 50 ml/minute
B. 80 ml/minute
C. 130 ml/minute
D. 200 ml/minute
Answer: C. 130 ml/minute
Explanation: Normal GFR is about 125 ml/min (roughly 180 L/day). It is the best index of overall kidney function.
Q14. What is the normal concentration of iodine in blood?
A. 0.5-1 mgm%
B. 1.5-2 mgm%
C. 0.1-0.4 mgm%
D. 2-2.5 mgm%
Answer: A. 0.5-1 mgm% (as per the key)
Explanation: The key marks 0.5-1 mgm%. Iodine in blood is mostly protein-bound and is essential for thyroid hormone synthesis.
Q15. Which test is done to determine pregnancy?
A. Ascheim Zondek test
B. Friedman's test
C. Kupperman's test
D. All of the above
Answer: D. All of the above (as per the key)
Explanation: Ascheim-Zondek and Friedman's tests are old biological (animal) pregnancy tests that detect hCG. The key marks "All of the above", though Kupperman is usually a menopausal index.
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Q16. Which immunoglobulin forms antibody in an anaphylactic reaction?
A. Ig A
B. Ig E
C. Ig D
D. Ig M
Answer: B. Ig E
Explanation: IgE binds to mast cells and basophils. On re-exposure to the allergen it triggers histamine release, causing anaphylaxis.
Q17. The main fibre arising from the body of each nerve cell is called:
A. Dendrite
B. Axon
C. Elastic fibres
D. Dense fibres
Answer: B. Axon
Explanation: The axon is the long single process that carries impulses away from the cell body. Dendrites are the short branched processes that receive impulses.
Q18. Inflammation of vein complicated by an obstructing clot is known as:
A. Venous thrombosis
B. Thrombus
C. Thrombophlebitis
D. Embolus
Answer: C. Thrombophlebitis
Explanation: Thrombophlebitis is vein wall inflammation along with clot formation inside the vessel. A thrombus is only the clot itself.
Q19. There are how many pairs of cranial nerves?
A. 3
B. 6
C. 9
D. 12
Answer: D. 12
Explanation: Humans have 12 pairs of cranial nerves arising from the brain. They are numbered I (olfactory) to XII (hypoglossal).
Q20. Inability to see in dim light is called:
A. Myopia
B. Colour blindness
C. Presbyopia
D. Night blindness
Answer: D. Night blindness
Explanation: Night blindness (nyctalopia) results from Vitamin A deficiency, which affects rhodopsin in rod cells. Rods are responsible for dim-light vision.
Q21. Product of digested food in the stomach is called:
A. Gastric juice
B. Lymph
C. Chyme
D. Bolus
Answer: C. Chyme
Explanation: Chyme is the semi-liquid, acidic mixture of food and gastric juice formed in the stomach. A bolus is the chewed food ball swallowed from the mouth.
Q22. Which vitamin is also called Calciferol?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin D
C. Vitamin E
D. Vitamin K
Answer: B. Vitamin D
Explanation: Vitamin D (ergocalciferol/cholecalciferol) promotes calcium absorption from the gut. It is synthesized in skin under sunlight.
Q23. Microscopic study of abnormal tissue of the body is known as:
A. Histology
B. Cytology
C. Histopathology
D. Genetics
Answer: C. Histopathology
Explanation: Histopathology is the microscopic examination of diseased tissue. Histology deals with normal tissue, and cytology with individual cells.
Q24. Which fixative is used for the study of ultrastructure in electron microscope?
A. Picric acid
B. Glutaraldehyde
C. Chromic acid
D. Helly's fluid
Answer: B. Glutaraldehyde
Explanation: Glutaraldehyde cross-links proteins and preserves fine cell structure very well. It is usually followed by osmium tetroxide post-fixation.
Q25. Which fixative is mainly used for demonstration of enzymes?
A. Acetone
B. Formalin
C. Zenker's solution
D. Bouin's fluid
Answer: A. Acetone
Explanation: Cold acetone preserves enzyme activity better than cross-linking fixatives. Formalin and other aqueous fixatives tend to inactivate enzymes.
Q26. In freezing microtome, which gas is used?
A. Oxygen
B. CO₂
C. Lithium
D. Hydrogen
Answer: C. Lithium (as per the key)
Explanation: The key marks option C, though in practice compressed CO₂ is the usual freezing agent. Be careful: this is a doubtful key answer.
Q27. Which technique is used in histology for immediate diagnosis?
A. Paraffin technique
B. Frozen section
C. Celloidin section
D. Gelatin section
Answer: B. Frozen section
Explanation: Frozen sections can be cut and stained in minutes, so they are used for rapid diagnosis during surgery. Paraffin processing takes many hours.
Q28. Sudan IV stain is used for tissue biopsy of:
A. Kidney
B. Breast
C. Gall bladder
D. Lungs
Answer: B. Breast (as per the key)
Explanation: Sudan IV is a fat (lysochrome) stain used on frozen sections to show lipids. The key marks breast as the answer.
Q29. Lung cancer is diagnosed with the help of which specimen?
A. Sputum
B. Urine
C. Gastrointestinal biopsy
D. Saliva
Answer: A. Sputum
Explanation: Sputum cytology can show malignant cells shed from the bronchial tree. It is a simple, non-invasive screening method.
Q30. Vaginal smears are valuable for the assessment of:
A. Malignancy
B. Endocrine disorders
C. Hormonal function
D. UTI
Answer: C. Hormonal function
Explanation: The cell types in a vaginal smear change with the level of estrogen and progesterone. So it helps assess ovarian hormonal status.
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Q31. FNAC is used for the lesions of:
A. Skin
B. Lymph node
C. Breast
D. All of the above
Answer: D. All of the above
Explanation: Fine needle aspiration cytology is a quick, minimally invasive test. It is used for superficial lesions such as skin, lymph nodes and breast lumps.
Q32. Which hemoglobin is detected by Sahli's method?
A. Carboxyhemoglobin
B. Sulphemoglobin
C. Methemoglobin
D. Oxyhemoglobin
Answer: D. Oxyhemoglobin (as per the key)
Explanation: In Sahli's method, Hb is converted to acid hematin using N/10 HCl and compared with a standard. It does not measure all Hb derivatives, such as carboxy- and sulphemoglobin.
Q33. The coloured pigment present in Hb is known as:
A. Globin
B. Iron
C. Heme
D. Bilirubin
Answer: C. Heme
Explanation: Heme is an iron-containing porphyrin that gives blood its red colour. Globin is the protein part of hemoglobin.
Q34. Which is the smallest cell in the cellular component of blood?
A. RBCs
B. Platelets
C. WBCs
D. Reticulocyte
Answer: B. Platelets
Explanation: Platelets are 2-4 µm cell fragments from megakaryocytes. They are smaller than RBCs (about 7 µm).
Q35. Removal of how much ml of blood results in loss of 1 mg of iron?
A. 1 ml
B. 2 ml
C. 3 ml
D. 4 ml
Answer: B. 2 ml
Explanation: Blood contains about 0.5 mg of iron per ml. So removing 2 ml of blood removes roughly 1 mg of iron.
Q36. The process of production of blood is known as:
A. Erythropoiesis
B. Hemopoiesis
C. Erythropoietin
D. Hemostasis
Answer: B. Hemopoiesis
Explanation: Hemopoiesis is the formation of all blood cells from stem cells. Erythropoiesis refers only to RBC production.
Q37. A condition in which RBC count is increased is known as:
A. Anemia
B. Polycythemia
C. Thalassemia
D. Leukemia
Answer: B. Polycythemia
Explanation: Polycythemia means increased RBC number or hemoglobin. Anemia is the opposite, a decrease.
Q38. Reticulocytes are stained with which type of stain?
A. Crystal violet
B. Hematoxylin stain
C. Brilliant cresyl blue
D. Eosin
Answer: C. Brilliant cresyl blue
Explanation: Brilliant cresyl blue is a supravital stain that precipitates the residual RNA in young red cells. This gives a blue reticulum or network.
Q39. Which method is used for estimation of ESR?
A. Westergren's method
B. Duke method
C. Sahli's method
D. Ivy method
Answer: A. Westergren's method
Explanation: Westergren's method (1 in 5 dilution with citrate, 200 mm tube) is the standard for ESR. Duke and Ivy are bleeding time methods.
Q40. A fall in leucocyte count below 4000/cu mm of blood is called:
A. Leucocytosis
B. Thrombocytopenia
C. Leucopenia
D. Leukemia
Answer: C. Leucopenia
Explanation: Leucopenia is a reduced total WBC count (<4000/cu mm). Leucocytosis is an increase above the normal range.
Q41. Which stain is routinely used for differential count?
A. Leishman stain
B. Albert stain
C. Gram stain
D. Acridine stain
Answer: A. Leishman stain
Explanation: Leishman is a Romanowsky-type stain (eosin and methylene blue). It clearly shows the morphology of different WBCs in a smear.
Q42. Platelets have which coloured granules?
A. Blue black
B. Pink red
C. Yellowish green
D. Pink purple
Answer: D. Pink purple
Explanation: In Romanowsky-stained smears, platelets show pink-purple (azurophilic) granules in a pale blue cytoplasm.
Q43. How many lobes are present in a neutrophil?
A. 1-2
B. 2-6
C. 2-3
D. 5-10
Answer: B. 2-6
Explanation: The neutrophil nucleus is segmented into 2-6 lobes joined by thin strands. Hence it is also called a polymorphonuclear leucocyte.
Q44. Which leucocyte protects our body against allergic reaction and parasitic infestation?
A. Neutrophil
B. Eosinophil
C. Lymphocyte
D. Macrophage
Answer: B. Eosinophil
Explanation: Eosinophils increase in allergic conditions and helminth infections. They release granule contents that damage parasites.
Q45. In children bone marrow biopsy is taken from:
A. Proximal tibia
B. Ribs
C. Iliac crest
D. Vertebral bodies
Answer: A. Proximal tibia
Explanation: In young children (especially infants) the proximal tibia has active red marrow and is safe to access. In adults, the iliac crest and sternum are used.
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Q46. Which method of platelet counting is preferred for accurate count?
A. Counting chamber method
B. Slide method
C. Colorimetry assay
D. Holder method
Answer: A. Counting chamber method
Explanation: Direct counting in a hemocytometer with a phase contrast microscope is considered the most accurate manual method. Indirect smear methods are less precise.
Q47. Which diluent is good for RBC and platelet counting?
A. Formal saline
B. Formal citrate
C. Sodium citrate
D. Formalin
Answer: B. Formal citrate
Explanation: Formal citrate fixes the cells with formalin while citrate prevents clotting. This keeps the cells intact for counting.
Q48. Which protein is synthesized by platelets?
A. Albumin
B. Globulin
C. Fibrinogen
D. Collagen
Answer: C. Fibrinogen (as per the key)
Explanation: The key marks fibrinogen. Platelets store and release fibrinogen, which takes part in aggregation and clot formation. Fibrinogen is mainly made in the liver.
Q49. What is the normal bleeding time by Duke method?
A. 1-6 minutes
B. 6-10 minutes
C. 10-14 minutes
D. 15-20 minutes
Answer: A. 1-6 minutes
Explanation: Duke's method (ear lobe puncture) gives a normal bleeding time of about 1-6 minutes. It mainly tests platelet function.
DSSSB Lab Technician Previous Question Paper 2015
Q50. Menstrual blood generally does not clot due to presence of which substance in uterine wall?
A. Thrombin activators
B. Plasmin activators
C. Anticoagulants
D. Hirudin
Answer: B. Plasmin activators
Explanation: The uterine wall releases plasminogen activators that form plasmin (fibrinolysin). Plasmin dissolves fibrin clots, so menstrual blood stays fluid.
Q51. Mostly Rh antibodies are of which class?
A. Ig E
B. Ig D
C. Ig G
D. Ig M
Answer: C. Ig G
Explanation: Anti-Rh antibodies are immune IgG antibodies. They can cross the placenta and cause hemolytic disease of the newborn.
Q52. The reaction between antigen and antibody is known as:
A. Hemolysis
B. Auto agglutination
C. Agglutination
D. Pan agglutination
Answer: C. Agglutination
Explanation: When antibodies bind antigens on particles such as RBCs, the cells clump together. This visible clumping is agglutination.
Q53. The agglutinogen develops in the embryo after how many days of conception?
A. 10
B. 20
C. 30
D. 40
Answer: D. 40
Explanation: Blood group antigens (agglutinogens) appear on fetal red cells at about the 6th week (around 40 days) of gestation.
Q54. Content of which mineral is increased in cell during cold storage of blood?
A. Sodium
B. Potassium
C. Calcium
D. Phosphorous
Answer: A. Sodium
Explanation: In cold storage the Na⁺-K⁺ pump slows down, so sodium enters the red cells. Potassium leaks out into the plasma.
Q55. Transfusion of blood or blood products previously collected from the same person is called:
A. Direct transfusion
B. Indirect transfusion
C. Autologous transfusion
D. Homologous transfusion
Answer: C. Autologous transfusion
Explanation: In autologous transfusion the patient receives his or her own stored blood. It avoids risks such as incompatibility and transfusion-transmitted infection.
Q56. Which reagent is used as a primary stain in Gram stain?
A. Lugol's iodine
B. Crystal violet
C. Acetone
D. Safranin
Answer: B. Crystal violet
Explanation: Crystal violet is the primary stain, followed by Gram's iodine (mordant), decolorizer, then safranin as the counterstain.
Q57. Which stain divides bacteria into acid-fast and non-acid-fast?
A. Albert stain
B. Gram stain
C. Ziehl-Neelsen stain
D. Malachite green stain
Answer: C. Ziehl-Neelsen stain
Explanation: In the ZN stain, acid-fast bacilli (like M. tuberculosis) resist decolorization by acid and stay red. Non-acid-fast organisms take the blue counterstain.
Q58. Which gas is commonly used for sterilization of operation theatres?
A. Formaldehyde
B. Beta-propiolactone
C. Ethylene oxide
D. Methylene oxide
Answer: A. Formaldehyde
Explanation: Formaldehyde gas (fumigation) is the common method for disinfecting OTs and closed rooms. Ethylene oxide is used for heat-sensitive equipment.
Q59. Widely used solidifying agent for the preparation of solid media is:
A. Blood
B. Peptone water
C. Agar
D. Broth
Answer: C. Agar
Explanation: Agar is a polysaccharide from seaweed that melts at about 95°C and sets near 42°C. Most bacteria cannot digest it, so it is ideal for solid media.
Q60. Which type of media contains substances that prevent the growth of microorganisms?
A. Enrichment media
B. Enriched media
C. Selective media
D. Transport media
Answer: C. Selective media
Explanation: Selective media contain inhibitors (e.g., bile salts, antibiotics) that stop unwanted organisms. This lets the desired organism grow, as in MacConkey or DCA agar.
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Q61. For pasteurization of milk, it is heated how long at 63°C?
A. 20 minutes
B. 40 minutes
C. 30 minutes
D. 50 minutes
Answer: C. 30 minutes
Explanation: The Holder method heats milk at 63°C for 30 minutes. The flash method uses 72°C for 15 seconds.
Q62. Which test is used to differentiate Gram-negative bacilli?
A. Hydrogen sulphide test
B. Indole test
C. Lecithinase test
D. Deoxyribonuclease test
Answer: B. Indole test
Explanation: The indole test detects the breakdown of tryptophan to indole. It helps separate enterobacteria, e.g., E. coli (positive) from Klebsiella (negative).
Q63. Which antibiotic inhibits cell wall synthesis?
A. Penicillin
B. Polymyxins
C. Tetracycline
D. Erythromycin
Answer: A. Penicillin
Explanation: Penicillin blocks transpeptidase enzymes and stops peptidoglycan cross-linking. Polymyxins damage the membrane, while tetracycline and erythromycin inhibit protein synthesis.
Q64. Which culture medium is used for antibiotic sensitivity test?
A. Blood agar
B. Thayer Martin medium
C. Whey water
D. Mueller-Hinton broth
Answer: D. Mueller-Hinton broth (as per the key)
Explanation: The key marks D. In routine disc diffusion, Mueller-Hinton agar is actually used, as it supports most pathogens and gives reproducible results.
Q65. Which among the following indicates growth in the culture medium?
A. Turbidity
B. Precipitation
C. Coagulation
D. Pigment formation
Answer: A. Turbidity
Explanation: Growth in a liquid (broth) medium appears as cloudiness or turbidity. Other signs such as pellicle or sediment may also appear in some cases.
Q66. Nosocomial infection is caused by which species of Pseudomonas?
A. Pseudomallei
B. Aeruginosa
C. Mallei
D. All of the above
Answer: B. Aeruginosa
Explanation: P. aeruginosa is a major cause of hospital-acquired infections, especially in burns, catheters and ventilators. It is resistant to many antibiotics and disinfectants.
Q67. Tetanus is caused by Clostridium:
A. Perfringens
B. Botulinum
C. Difficile
D. Tetani
Answer: D. Tetani
Explanation: C. tetani is a spore-forming anaerobe producing tetanospasmin. This neurotoxin causes spastic paralysis and lockjaw.
Q68. Bacillary dysentery is caused by:
A. Shigella
B. Salmonella
C. Proteus species
D. Citrobacter
Answer: A. Shigella
Explanation: Shigella invades the colonic mucosa and causes bloody, mucus-containing diarrhoea. Amoebic dysentery is the other main type.
Q69. Which specimen is more appropriate for culture of bacteria in the 1st week of typhoid?
A. Faeces
B. Urine
C. Blood
D. CSF
Answer: C. Blood
Explanation: Salmonella Typhi is present in the bloodstream (bacteremia) in the first week. Stool and urine cultures become positive later.
Q70. Which among the following is used for the detection of malarial parasite?
A. Platelets
B. Packed red cells
C. Serum
D. Plasma
Answer: B. Packed red cells
Explanation: Plasmodium lives and multiplies inside red blood cells. So RBCs (blood smears) are examined to see the parasite stages.
Q71. Which serological test is done in Ascariasis?
A. ELISA
B. BFT
C. CF
D. IHA
Answer: A. ELISA
Explanation: ELISA detects specific antibodies or antigens against Ascaris. Diagnosis is otherwise usually made by finding eggs in stool.
Q72. Amoebic dysentery is caused by which parasite?
A. E. histolytica
B. Giardia lamblia
C. E. coli
D. B. coli
Answer: A. E. histolytica
Explanation: Entamoeba histolytica invades the intestinal wall, causing ulcers and bloody-mucoid stools. It may also cause liver abscess.
Q73. Ribbon-like helminth parasites are known as:
A. Tapeworms
B. Flukes
C. Roundworms
D. Amoeba
Answer: A. Tapeworms
Explanation: Tapeworms (cestodes) have flat, segmented, ribbon-like bodies. Flukes are leaf-shaped, and roundworms are cylindrical.
Q74. Chicken-pox is caused by:
A. Herpes simplex
B. Varicella
C. Adenovirus
D. Cytomegalovirus
Answer: B. Varicella
Explanation: Chickenpox is caused by the varicella-zoster virus (VZV). Reactivation of the latent virus later causes shingles (herpes zoster).
Q75. The most commonly used cell lines for isolation of virus are:
A. Primary monkey kidney
B. Human diploid fibroblasts
C. HEp-2
D. All of the above
Answer: D. All of the above
Explanation: Primary cells, diploid cell strains and continuous lines like HEp-2 are all widely used. The choice depends on the virus being grown.
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Q76. The incubation period for Hepatitis B virus is:
A. 1-6 weeks
B. 1-6 months
C. 6-12 weeks
D. 6-12 months
Answer: B. 1-6 months
Explanation: HBV has a long incubation period, typically 45-180 days (average about 2-3 months). Hepatitis A and E have shorter periods.
Q77. Which of the following is a live vaccine?
A. Oral polio vaccine
B. Hepatitis vaccine
C. Rabies vaccine
D. Influenza vaccine
Answer: A. Oral polio vaccine
Explanation: OPV (Sabin) contains live attenuated polioviruses. The other options listed are killed or subunit vaccines.
Q78. The mosquito which acts as vector for Dengue fever is:
A. Culex
B. Aedes
C. Anopheles
D. All of the above
Answer: B. Aedes
Explanation: Dengue is spread by Aedes aegypti (and A. albopictus), which bite during the day. Culex transmits filariasis and Anopheles transmits malaria.
Q79. Which test is used for leprosy patient?
A. Schick test
B. Frei test
C. Mantoux test
D. Lepromin test
Answer: D. Lepromin test
Explanation: The lepromin test is a skin test that assesses cell-mediated immunity in leprosy. It helps classify the type of disease and its prognosis.
Q80. Which type of immunity is acquired by direct exposure to an antigen?
A. Active immunity
B. Passive immunity
C. Adaptive immunity
D. Herd immunity
Answer: A. Active immunity
Explanation: In active immunity the body makes its own antibodies and memory cells after infection or vaccination. It is long lasting, unlike passive immunity.
Q81. How many major immunoglobulins are there?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 8
Answer: C. 5
Explanation: The five classes are IgG, IgA, IgM, IgD and IgE. They differ in heavy chain type and function.
Q82. The presence of which antibody in a fetus indicates intrauterine infection?
A. IgG
B. IgA
C. IgD
D. IgM
Answer: D. IgM
Explanation: IgM is too large to cross the placenta, so IgM in the fetus or newborn was made by the fetus itself. This points to an intrauterine infection.
Q83. Alpha interferon is produced by:
A. Leukocytes
B. Red blood cells
C. Fibroblasts
D. Platelets
Answer: A. Leukocytes
Explanation: Alpha interferon comes from leukocytes, beta interferon from fibroblasts, and gamma interferon from T cells. They give antiviral protection.
Q84. Which type of hypersensitivity is called atopy?
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV
Answer: A. Type I
Explanation: Type I is IgE-mediated immediate hypersensitivity (asthma, hay fever, anaphylaxis). "Atopy" is the inherited tendency to develop it.
Q85. Which of the following is an example of autoimmune disease?
A. Myasthenia gravis
B. Addison's disease
C. Pernicious anemia
D. All of the above
Answer: D. All of the above
Explanation: All three result from immune attack on the body's own tissues. They target acetylcholine receptors, adrenal cortex and intrinsic factor/parietal cells respectively.
Q86. Elek's test is used to detect toxigenic strains of which bacteria?
A. Bacillus
B. Bordetella
C. Corynebacterium
D. Clostridium
Answer: C. Corynebacterium
Explanation: Elek's gel precipitation test detects diphtheria toxin produced by Corynebacterium diphtheriae. A precipitin line forms between antitoxin and toxin.
Q87. The indicator used in complement fixation test consists of:
A. Rabbit red cells
B. Human red cells
C. Sheep red cells
D. None of these
Answer: C. Sheep red cells
Explanation: The indicator system is sheep RBCs sensitized with anti-sheep antibody (hemolysin). Hemolysis means complement was free, so the test is negative.
Q88. VDRL test is done for the diagnosis of:
A. Syphilis
B. Q fever
C. Influenza
D. Meningitis
Answer: A. Syphilis
Explanation: VDRL is a non-treponemal flocculation test that detects reagin antibodies. It is used for screening and follow-up of syphilis.
Q89. Metabolic disorder associated with abnormal metabolism of tyrosine is called:
A. Albinism
B. Alkaptonuria
C. Phenylketonuria
D. Tyrosinosis
Answer: B. Alkaptonuria (as per the key)
Explanation: Alkaptonuria is due to deficiency of homogentisate oxidase in tyrosine breakdown. Urine turns dark on standing. Albinism also involves tyrosine metabolism, so this question is ambiguous.
Q90. Which form of sugar is found in milk?
A. Sucrose
B. Lactose
C. Maltose
D. Starch
Answer: B. Lactose
Explanation: Lactose (milk sugar) is a disaccharide of glucose and galactose. It is digested by the enzyme lactase.
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Q91. In iodine test, which colour precipitate indicates the presence of starch?
A. Red
B. Blue
C. Yellow
D. Green
Answer: B. Blue
Explanation: Iodine forms a complex with amylose in starch, giving a blue-black colour. This is the standard test for starch.
Q92. The end product of glycolysis is:
A. Lactate
B. Oxaloacetate
C. Pyruvate
D. Acetyl CoA
Answer: C. Pyruvate
Explanation: Glycolysis converts glucose into two molecules of pyruvate. Under anaerobic conditions, pyruvate is then reduced to lactate.
Q93. The conversion of lactic acid to glucose occurs at:
A. Glycolysis
B. Cori cycle
C. Urea cycle
D. HMP shunt
Answer: B. Cori cycle
Explanation: In the Cori cycle, lactate from muscle goes to the liver and is converted to glucose by gluconeogenesis. The glucose returns to muscle.
Q94. Breakdown of glycogen to glucose is termed as:
A. Glycolysis
B. Glycogenolysis
C. Glycogenesis
D. Gluconeogenesis
Answer: B. Glycogenolysis
Explanation: Glycogenolysis breaks stored glycogen into glucose, mainly in liver and muscle. Glycogenesis is the reverse, the synthesis of glycogen.
Q95. Urea cycle occurs in which part of the body?
A. Kidney
B. Stomach
C. Liver
D. Heart
Answer: C. Liver
Explanation: The urea cycle (Krebs-Henseleit cycle) takes place in liver cells. It converts toxic ammonia into urea, which is excreted in urine.
Q96. Which method is most commonly used for uric acid estimation?
A. Berthelot method
B. Caraway method
C. Diacetyl monoxime method
D. Sulphosalicylic acid test
Answer: B. Caraway method
Explanation: The Caraway method uses phosphotungstic acid, which is reduced by uric acid to give a blue colour. Berthelot is for urea/ammonia, and sulphosalicylic acid is for urine protein.
Q97. The separation of charged particles through an electrolyte under the influence of an electric current is called:
A. Chromatography
B. Electrophoresis
C. Immunofluorescence
D. Immunodiffusion
Answer: B. Electrophoresis
Explanation: In electrophoresis, charged molecules migrate in an electric field according to charge and size. It is widely used to separate serum proteins and Hb variants.
Q98. The excessive quantity of fat excreted in faeces is known as:
A. Steatorrhoea
B. Proteinemia
C. Azotemia
D. Haematuria
Answer: A. Steatorrhoea
Explanation: Steatorrhoea means pale, bulky, foul-smelling stools with excess fat. It occurs in malabsorption and pancreatic or biliary disease.
Q99. Which disease is caused due to low iodine diet?
A. Goitre
B. Acromegaly
C. Cretinism
D. Beri-beri
Answer: A. Goitre
Explanation: Lack of iodine reduces thyroid hormone, so TSH rises and the thyroid gland enlarges (goitre). Severe deficiency in infancy can also cause cretinism.
Q100. Which hormone is detected in urine/serum to diagnose pregnancy?
A. TSH
B. Androgen
C. hCG
D. Oxytocin
Answer: C. hCG
Explanation: Human chorionic gonadotropin is produced by the placenta soon after implantation. Pregnancy tests detect it in urine or serum.
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